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Britain had an agreement with Poland. So when Poland was invaded by Germany, Britain joined the war. Britain, France and Poland made an alliance. In an alliance if one country gets attacked the others help, so when Germany attacked Poland, Britain and France helped and joined the war against Germany.

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18y ago
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12y ago

Please don't use this info people can change stuff.

AnswerBritain was responsible with the allies for stopping the march of the Nazi empire builders. We may have started a lot of wars during our empire days but we were not responsible for World War Two. AnswerIt could be argued that, had Britain, France and the USA acted sooner, the length of the war would have been dramatically reduced. If, in 1936, there had been a zero tolerance of the reoccupation of the Rhineland, then Hitler would have been far less successful, and the war would probably not have been so devastating. It was only because of the Rhineland that he gained enough support to begin Anschluss, and march into Austria. This gave him a significant border with Czechoslovakia, which prompted the invasion, allowing him to control the south border and the west border of Poland. Had Britain, France and the USA acted sooner, such a disastrous war may have been averted, for a significantly less disatrous war.

In a way, it was the harshness of the Treaty of Versailles, at the end of World War One, that caused much antagonism between Germany and the Allies. The terms for surrender were extremely harsh and many Germans, not least Hitler, felt that they had been hard done by, and wanted revenge. But, then, all wars are caused by the previous one, in some sense. World War Two was caused by World War One, which was caused by the Franco-Prussian War (amongst other things), which was caused by the Napoleonic Wars, and so on.

AnswerBritain, along with the other Western Democracies, did not solve the German problem at the end of World War One. There were two possible approaches for the Treaty of Versailles - either to embrace Germany back into the world community, or to make sure that Germany never posed a threat to the world again. The treaty failed on both accounts - and instead, developed a great deal of resentment inside Germany due to the dictated peace. Poland is to blame for world war two as they where selling secret info to other places most of it was German . AnswerIt should be considered that if Britain and France had acted more harshly to Germany at the earlier time of the re-occupation of the Rhineland, then the USA might not have been so willing to help the Allied side in the war.

Because Britain and France had made such efforts to avoid war, it was obvious that Hitler was intent on carrying out aggressive take overs of foreign territory no matter what. This is what convinced the USA to overturn its policy of isolation and offer the British "All aid short of war".

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13y ago

Britain was actually containing West Germany along with France and the United States. West Germany became know as N.A.T.O. and East Germany (dominated by the Soviet Union), was known as the Warsaw Pact. East Germany and West Germany were against each other which meant the Cold War. And that's how Britain is involved, but i don't know any further than that, so sorry if this doesn't help.

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14y ago

The government of the USA was responsible for involving US citizen's in World War 2.
Not everyone in America took part. It could be argued that the government was comprised of representatives of the people, democratically elected by majority vote by the people. Even so, the 'majority' electoral system shows that not everyone in America supported governmental proposals.

PARTICIPANTS
Only a minority of America's population were directly involved in the war.
Those that did so were either volunteers or drafted in (conscripted) under the government's Selective Training and Service Act (STSA) of 1940.

DID AMERICA CAUSE THE WAR?
Of course, there is also a difference between being an active participant, i.e. fighting in a war, and causing a war. Did America cause the war? Many (most?) would argue that 'America' did not.

WHEN WAS WORLD WAR 2?
Different countries have different views on when World War 2 began. In Europe an official 'war' between major powers raged between the years 1939-1945.

The American military were not involved initially in the war. However, the Japanese military attacked US naval ships in Pearl Harbour, Hawaii, in 1941 and America consequently declared war on Japan. In this sense, 'America' (i.e. the government and military forces of the United States of America) did not take the first offensive act, but responded defensively. Of course, the view could be taken that all those who participate in war are partially responsible for the war, because, if the attacked had submitted to the attackers, no war would have taken place!

WHO STARTED WORLD WAR 2?
Without going into the finer details of the chain of events that led to WW2, the war in Europe is reckoned to have started on September 1, 1939, when the military of Germany and Slovakia attacked Poland. 'America' was not being attacked, nor does it seem to have been responsible for that attack.

In 1941, when Japanese forces attacked American ships in Hawaii, 'America' would appear to have been the victims, not the instigators, of that conflict. However, it must be admitted that, prior to that event, the American government had been giving support to various national powers already engaged in military conflict, e.g. China, Britain and the 'Western Allies.'
Does the American government's support for powers already engaged in that war effort mean that 'America' was to blame, to some extent, for the war? Also, Does a 'democratically empowered' government actually represent the collective will of all the citizens of that country?

KEY POINTS
In order to answer the question, 'Was America to blame for World War 2?' we need to ask:

1. Is anyone who joins a war after it has begun between others, 'responsible' for that war?
2. Are any individuals or governments who participate in a war or who contribute directly in any other way to such a war, actually 'responsible' for that war?
3. Are those taking defensive or reprisal military action 'responsible' for the war?
4. Are citizens who appoint representatives who then decide on war, responsible for the decisions their 'representatives' make?
5. Are ALL citizens of a country that contributes in any way to war 'responsible' for that war?

The extent to which these questions can be answered in the affirmative would indicate the extent to which 'America' must carry blame for World War II.
For information about American involvement in World War II, see Related links below.

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14y ago

They fought against Germany and the Nazis to stop Hitler.

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16y ago

Because Hitler invaded Poland

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Q: Was Britain partially to blame for World War 2?
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