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Today it is interpreted to include all people, while originally it referred only to white men. -Apex

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6y ago
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Anviously

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2y ago
Correct:)
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14y ago

That statement was in the Declaration of Independence, wrote by Thomas Jefferson. Philosophically speaking, he meant all human beings.

Practically speaking, he clearly did not mean all human beings, as he himself had slaves. And certainly the laws of the United States, when independence was acquired, allowed for slavery and less than equal rights for women.

It may be best said then that the statement was a goal, and one that our nation in looking at anew each generation, has been led to come closer to. While those of African descent, women and Native Americans had little if any rights at the time, slowly, as the centuries have passed, each of those groups has achieved more rights, until we have the situation where all are held to be equal.

Yet even now, we should still be regarded as falling short, in the opinion of some. So the fight for equality of rights for homosexuals still continues. Some small churches and faiths still fight for full equality in some areas. Some even see a need to fight for non-human groups, such as animal rights organizations.

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7y ago

Unlikely based on the beliefs when the words were written. Had that been the original intent then slavery would not have been allowed and women would have been able to vote.

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11y ago

Thomas Jefferson said that because he meant that all mean are equal in everything. :)

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14y ago

It was likely interpreted as that all the white men (who held the power at the time) were created equal.

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Wiki User

11y ago

I do indeed believe that it means all human beings. Man and woman, no matter what race. Men is a generalization.

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Anonymous

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3y ago

Originally it referred only to white men,but today it includes all people.

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Q: How is the modern interpretation of the phrase all men are created equal different from its original meaning?
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