Not exactly. "Qualifications" to vote are set by the states, subject to certain restrictions in the Constitution and its Amendments and the authority of the federal government in enforcing the Fifteenth Amendment's Equal Protection Clause. Federal case law holds that the "right" to vote belongs to only to "qualified" citizens and that the states have the general authority to prescribe those qualifications. That authority has limits based in the Constitution and its Amendments. States may not use certain factors in determining qualification. Factors such as payment of poll taxes, prior condition of servitude (former slaves), sex, age (over 18) may not be used by the states to determine "qualification." States are free to make reasonable rules governing a person's qualification to vote, but they may not use that power as a means of depriving otherwise able citizens of the right to vote. States may require citizenship, registration, residency, a minimum level of competency. States may preclude convicted felons from voting. The Voting Rights Acts of 1965 and 1970 provide other restrictions on the power of states to qualify voters when that power is actually being used to disqualify voters.
It is true that many of the new state constitutions removed the property qualifications for voting. In 1790 in the United States, the only people who had the right to vote were white adult males who owned property.
No. The Constitution only uses the gender neutral "people" or "person" and never specifically mentions either sex, male or female. The Constitution was thus phrased to apply equally to both women and men.Contrary to common opinion, women were not denied the right to vote by the original Constitution--the individual states were left to determine their own requirements for voting. It was at the state level that women were unconstitutionally denied their right to vote. The states lost the power to exclude citizens from voting on the basis of sex with the passage of the 19th Amendment in 1920.
Only that citizens have the right to vote for a US Representative if they are able to vote in the largest house of their state's legislature. People did not have the right to vote, granted by the Constitution, for anything else including Senators and the President/Vice President. Some states did have popular voting for Senators and Presidential Electors at the time, but it was not required. It is still not required for states to allow popular voting for Presidential Electors, however all states practice this.
The US Constitution makes no such statement. It is not true that everyone can vote- there are restrictions based on age, ability to establish proof of citizenship, prior registration, etc. The 15th amendment says that race or color can not be a restriction against voting. The 19th amendment says that sex can not be used as a voting condition.
The right to public education
N
Voters must be citizens of the United States and live in the precinct in which they vote. States to have the right to declare what the minimum voting age is.
Voters must be citizens of the United States and live in the precinct in which they vote. States to have the right to declare what the minimum voting age is.
It is true that many of the new state constitutions removed the property qualifications for voting. In 1790 in the United States, the only people who had the right to vote were white adult males who owned property.
im pretty sure no.... bc its in the constitution that women get the right to vote, so i dont think that its the states choice
It outlawed discriminatory voting practices against African Americans. Some states had previously excluded legitimate black voters by means of a literacy test, etc. This became unlawful with the Voting Rights Act which forbade any and all discriminatory qualifications.
The legal voting age in Massachusetts in 2012 was 18 years old.
The 19th amendment provided for women's suffrage. Proposed in 1919 and ratified on August 18, 1920 , it guaranteed women the right to vote. (or at least not to be treated differently than men as far as voting qualifications) There is a link below to an article on women's suffrage.
Right for survival, speech and freedom
The 19th Amendment, which resulted in women gaining the right to vote in all US states.
Yes, they stopped some. Others were brave enough to vote because the Constitution gave them the right,
No. The Constitution only uses the gender neutral "people" or "person" and never specifically mentions either sex, male or female. The Constitution was thus phrased to apply equally to both women and men.Contrary to common opinion, women were not denied the right to vote by the original Constitution--the individual states were left to determine their own requirements for voting. It was at the state level that women were unconstitutionally denied their right to vote. The states lost the power to exclude citizens from voting on the basis of sex with the passage of the 19th Amendment in 1920.