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The Spanish colonies in the Americas led to the decline of Spain because the Spanish had ships that were outmaneuvered and destroyed by lighter, faster English ships.
No; they only started to decline when the Spanish started to attack them.
The gold and silver Spain took from the Americas contributed to high inflation, Spainards then bought cheaper goods from other countries, and the weakened navy could be beaten.
Three things that lead to the decline of the aztecs were: 1) Many physical and human resources funneled into religious activities. 2) Need for prisoners changes warfare style to less deadly and less aggressive. 3) Tribute states are rebellious and need to be controlled
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Why did long-distance trade decline in China between the fourth and sixth centuries?