0
At the conclusion of World War I and through the formal peace-negotiations that followed, the allied nations of Great Britain and France took roughly the same stance on reparations in this way: they both believed Germany to be responsible for making them. They differed, however, in the severity of the payments to be made: France favored extensive and (intentionally) crippling reparations, while Great Britain did not.
Still curious? Ask our experts.
Chat with our AI personalities
Lao
Ross
Steve
Add your answer:
Earn +20 pts
By 1946 great Britain and the US were refusing to permit what?
was it the greek invasion into turkey? No, they were refusing to let the Soviet Union take reparations from the western zones of Germany.
Britain and France claimed that if Hitler tried to take this country they would be forced to declare war on him?
If Hitler took Poland then Britain and France would declare war on him, which they did.
What part of czechosolvakia did Hitler take over while France and great Britain watched?
The Sudetenland
What countries did Britain take over in world war 1?
They didn't take over any countries. Germany, Italy and Austria-Hungary did but in the end Britain, France and Russia won the war so Britain didn't need to take over any countries.
Why was appeasement a logical strategy?
England and France did not wish to engage Germany in another war. Letting Germany take over a country or two seemed reasonable at the time to the leaders of France and Britain.
