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What did the Indian education act do?
The 1972 Indian Education Act was the landmark legislation establishing a comprehensive approach to meeting the unique needs of American Indian and Alaska Native students. The unique aspects of the original authority have been retained through subsequent legislative reauthorizing statutes, with the latest revision occurring with the amendments made by the 2001 No Child Left Behind Act (NCLB), which reauthorized the program as Title VII Part A of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act. The Indian Education legislation is unique in the following ways:It recognizes that American Indians have unique, educational and culturally related academic needs and distinct language and cultural needs;It is the only comprehensive Federal Indian Education legislation, that deals with American Indian education from pre-school to graduate-level education and reflects the diversity of government involvement in Indian education;It focuses national attention on the educational needs of American Indian learners, reaffirming the Federal government's special responsibility related to the education of American Indians and Alaska Natives; andIt provides services to American Indians and Alaska Natives that are not provided by the Bureau of Indian Affairs.
How was the Southern Colonies Education System set up?
A little more correctly: What did the kids do for an education in the Southern Colonies? Aristocratic and middle class male children were home schooled by tutors until their teens. The others, including Aristocratic and middle class women, usually weren't educated. Ministers were a large part of the tutoring labour pool. If they were to enter the law or, more usually, to become ministers, they were sent to college around age 16. England had the major colleges until William and Mary was established to produce ministers. One could, up until this century and still so on the statutes, read into the law without college which was just an apprenticeship with a lawyer.
What is an example of due process laws?
Due process is best defined in one word--fairness. Throughout the U.S.'s history, its constitutions, statutes and case law have provided standards for fair treatment of citizens by federal, state and local governments. These standards are known as due process. When a person is treated unfairly by the government, including the courts, he is said to have been deprived of or denied due process.Example: Ezra and Sharon married in New York and had a son, Darwin. They divorced and Sharon moved to California; Darwin stayed with Ezra. Darwin later moved to California to live with Sharon; Sharon sued Ezra for child support in California. Ezra claimed that because he didn't live in California and had never been to California it would be unfair (a denial of due process) for him to defend the child support lawsuit in California. The U.S. Supreme Court agreed, saying that Sharon should bring her child support request in New York. Kulko v. Superior Court, 436 U.S. 84 (1978).
Do you have to be born in America to be president?
The president must be a natural born citizen of the US. An individual may also be an American citizen by birth if he or she was born to U.S. parents outside of the United States. The US Constitution says that the Vice President must meet the same qualifications as the President. That means he or she must be at least 35 years of age, and be a natural born US citizen. It is a common misconception that the President must have been born in the United States, which is not true. But they must be a citizen at birth. A person born in Paris when his father was was serving as US Ambassador to France, for instance, would be qualified to be President. Someone born in a foreign country who later immigrates to the US is not eligible to be President, even though they become a US citizen after moving here.
Why were slave revolts so few in the US?
Because of militias.The Second Amendment states: "A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed." Odd place to start this isn't it?Why was the term "free State" used, rather than "free Nation" or "free Country"? Actually, the term "free Country" appeared in the original version of the Second Amendment. However, the wording was changed to appease slave owners. Why? Because prominent southern slaveholders wanted the Bill of Rights to sanction slave control militias.Militias which at that time were the principal instruments of slave control throughout the South. The southern slave control militias authorized by the revised Second Amendment were not small affairs.They were huge, compulsory networks. George Mason, a Virginia delegate to the U.S. Constitutional Congress who has been called the "Father of the Bill of Rights," confirmed that the southern militias were comprised of all white male citizens with only a few exceptions: a few public officers.Two decades before the Revolutionary War, the state of Georgia passed laws that required all plantation owners or their white male employees to enlist. The Georgia militias were required to make monthly inspections of all the state's slave quarters. According to Professor Bogus, "The Georgia statutes required patrols, under the direction of commissioned militia officers, to examine every plantation each month and authorized them to search 'all Negro Houses for offensive Weapons and Ammunition' and to apprehend and give twenty lashes to any slave found outside plantation grounds."Blacks outnumbered whites in many areas. Thus, armed state militias were required to "keep the peace." So Virginia's delegates demanded that the Bill of Rights include one granting white citizens the right to bear arms and form state militias.`Professor Carl T. Bogus of the Roger Williams University School of Law
