Individual state may set any qualifications they choose for voting as long as those qualifications are not in conflict with the United States Constitution or Federal Laws. Most qualifications involve timeliness of registering.
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States can set qualifications for voting, as long as the qualifications follow federal guidelines. The voting act of 1965 must be followed.
It was made this way because of the widespread variation of voting requirements in all the states.
Yes
It is true that many of the new state constitutions removed the property qualifications for voting. In 1790 in the United States, the only people who had the right to vote were white adult males who owned property.
Not exactly. "Qualifications" to vote are set by the states, subject to certain restrictions in the Constitution and its Amendments and the authority of the federal government in enforcing the Fifteenth Amendment's Equal Protection Clause. Federal case law holds that the "right" to vote belongs to only to "qualified" citizens and that the states have the general authority to prescribe those qualifications. That authority has limits based in the Constitution and its Amendments. States may not use certain factors in determining qualification. Factors such as payment of poll taxes, prior condition of servitude (former slaves), sex, age (over 18) may not be used by the states to determine "qualification." States are free to make reasonable rules governing a person's qualification to vote, but they may not use that power as a means of depriving otherwise able citizens of the right to vote. States may require citizenship, registration, residency, a minimum level of competency. States may preclude convicted felons from voting. The Voting Rights Acts of 1965 and 1970 provide other restrictions on the power of states to qualify voters when that power is actually being used to disqualify voters.
The people who are voting have a lawyer that does it