answersLogoWhite

0


Best Answer

Appeasement will forever be associated with British Conservative Prime Minister Neville Chamberlain. In signing the Munich aggreement he appeals to Hitlers 'better nature'. Put simply Hitler didn't have a better nature. Appeasement is a vain attempt to avoid a repitition of WW1 in Europe.

User Avatar

Wiki User

15y ago
This answer is:
User Avatar
More answers
User Avatar

Wiki User

16y ago

Probably, yes.

This answer is:
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Appeasement a cause of World War II?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp
Related questions

What are the landmarks of appeasement in World War 2?

Prior to World War II, Britain tried a strategy of appeasement with Hitler. It didn't work, and Hitler ended up taking Austria and Czechoslovakia.


How did the policy of appeasment effect World War 2?

Appeasement postponed WW II for a year or so.


How did the appeasement policy start World War 2?

It didn't. World War II would have happened even if appeasement hadn't been offered by Britain and France because Hitler wanted to dominate Europe.


World war 2 was caused in part by which of these factors?

Answer this question… European appeasement of German aggression in an effort to avoid conflict


What was the outcome of Britain's and France's policy appeasement?

It failed


Was the appeasement policy effective in preventing war in Europe?

Prior to World War II, the diplomatic policy of appeasement was in fact an effective way to avoid general war. For much of the 1930s, appeasement succeeded in holding off any conflict comparable to World War I. Whether this policy was wise is another question, for some have argued that a harder stance towards Germany in the 1930s could have led to a much quicker, less expansive war.


What policy did western democracies adopt toward Hitler before World War 2 began?

Western democracies desperately wanted to avoid war, and therefore adopted a policy of appeasement toward Hitler prior to WW II.


How did czechslovakia go agaient Germany in world war 2 or did they even try to stand up to Germany?

It was actually just given to Germany prior to World War II as following a policy of appeasement.


What was the effect of appeasement with Hitler before world war 2?

Effects after appeasing Adolf Hitler after his invasion of Rhinelade, was that: He began to declare territory and began to take more countries, which resulted in the beginning World War II.


Who disapproved the policy of appeasement?

In the years leading up to World War II, many people (if mostly a minority) disapproved of the policy of appeasement. "War hawks" throughout the western nations spoke up in protest of the generally accepted view that appeasement was wise. One such "disapprover" was Winston Churchill, who would go on to serve as Prime Minister for Great Britain in its darkest days of the war and then beyond.


Why was Adolf Hitler know for?

he was the cause for world war II, and the holicost


How did France and Britain respond to Nazi?

To start with they tried appeasement but in the end they declared war when Nazi lead Germany invaded Poland.Before World War II started, when Hitler took over Austria and Czechoslovakia, Britain and France chose appeasement, or they gave in to the aggressor's demands in order to keep peace. They didn't want to fight Germany because they were against war because they were war fatigued by World War I.