answersLogoWhite

0


Best Answer

The system was that each estate took its own poll on a one-man-one-vote basis; the majority in each estate decided how that Estate should vote; and the final voting was by Estates. On tax questions, the Third Estate was bound to be outnumbered two to one, despiteits memebrs being far more numerous than those of the other two. Naturally, threfore, they wanted a single one-man-one-vote arrangement.

User Avatar

Wiki User

15y ago
This answer is:
User Avatar
More answers
User Avatar

Wiki User

13y ago

because they were the main group of people in France. they were always out voted, since they were only accounted as one vote. they first and second estate always out voted them; 2 to 1.

This answer is:
User Avatar

User Avatar

Wiki User

9y ago

The 3rd estate felt it wasn't right that they were the ones that had to pay up for the luxurious lives of the 1st and 2nd estate and the royal family.

This answer is:
User Avatar

User Avatar

Wiki User

7y ago

What was the system of voting in the Estates General? What change did the Third Estate want in this system?

This answer is:
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Why did the Third-estate propose a change in the Estate's-general's voting rules?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp
Related questions

What is Henry David Thoreau opinion about voting to make change?

That voting is ineffective


How did voting requirements change to affect the election of 1828?

The voting requirements change that affected the 1828 election was the relaxation of the property qualification for voting. This lead to more people voting in this election, and led to Andrew Jackson's election to the presidency.


When did voting rights change?

1800s


Can you be the one to make the motion then abstain from voting on the motion?

Yes, it is possible for someone to make a motion during a meeting and then choose to abstain from voting on that same motion. This is a common practice in parliamentary procedure where individuals have the right to propose motions but may decide not to participate in the voting process for various reasons.


How would voting lead to political change?

Answer: Voting leads to putting new and different people in office.


How did voting rights change in Europe to the revolts of the mid- 1800s?

Most countries did not expand voting rights.France and Great Britain expanded voting rights.Only a few countries expanded voting rights.


How did the voting rights change in Europe due to the revolt of the mid-1800s?

Most countries did not expand voting rights.France and Great Britain expanded voting rights.Only a few countries expanded voting rights.


How did voting rights change in Europe due to the revolts of the the mid-1800s?

Most countries did not expand voting rights.France and Great Britain expanded voting rights.Only a few countries expanded voting rights.


Is there a peaceful way to change government in italy?

voting


Does voting affect social and economic change?

Yes


The 1965 Voting Rights Act forced the states to get permission from the federal government to change any voting laws.?

True.


The 1965 Voting Rights Act forced the states to get permission from the federal government to change any voting laws?

True.