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No, they were not. The idea of 'all people being equal under the law' is a concept that only came up in the 18th century, not before. In the case of Hammurabi, there were slaves everywhere and women in that age were little more than the 'property' of first their fathers, then their husbands.

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9y ago

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no because slaves and servants had harsher punishments if they broke laws than free-born people if they broke laws.

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14y ago
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Q: Where all people equal before the law under Hammurabi?
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