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it depends on if you mean why couldn't they go to school when they were slaves or if when they were freed. they probably wouldn't be aloud to have an education or be smart enough to wonder what the difference between them and their masters are and why they are to be working and not the masters being slaves.

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16y ago
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Wiki User

13y ago

That really depends on which culture's slaves you are making a reference to. In America, it was illegal to teach a slave to read or write-- the government didn't want slaves to get smart and fight back. Knowledge is an equalizer, you see, so if slaves could have access to it, then the owners would become equal.

However, in Muslim culture, being a slave was much better (in the way that being a slave goes...). You could buy your way out of slavery, you could go to school, and if you had children- they weren't automatically slaves-- in fact, if you had children, they were considers citizens. This is the way it worked for the Roman culture too. Americans invented the system we think of as the 'norm' for slavery so they could get more of a profit off of the cheap labor. Messed up, right?

Many slave owners did allow their slaves to read, often having the master's children teach the slaves. Those plantation owners were severely punished if they were caught teaching their slaves.

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12y ago

No, slaves were not allowed to go to school, just work.Slaves did not have education. They worked all day and night at wealthy Roman homes.

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Anonymous

Lvl 1
4y ago

Bathing in ancient Rome was by no means a speedy activity.in what order did the process happen

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Q: Why couldn't slaves go to school?
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