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Romans did and I beleive the Greeks did too but I'm not positive

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Q: Did the Greeks or the Romans give veto power?
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Why were Romans consuls awarded the power of the veto?

The power of veto was not just restricted to the consuls. All officers of state (consuls, praetors, censors, aediles and quaestors) had the power of veto. Officers of the same rank could veto each other and officers of higher rank could veto officers of lower rank. The tribune of the plebeians, who was the representative of the plebeians (commoners), but not an officer of state, also had to power of veto. The power to veto the actions of officers of state was the Roman system of checks and balances of power. It was meant to reduce the chance that the officers would abuse their power. The power of veto of the tribune of the plebeians was also meant to prevent the abuse of the commoners by the state.


Did plebeians get the right to veto?

The plebeians had the power of the veto in ancient Rome. Their tribunes were plebeians.The plebeians had the power of the veto in ancient Rome. Their tribunes were plebeians.The plebeians had the power of the veto in ancient Rome. Their tribunes were plebeians.The plebeians had the power of the veto in ancient Rome. Their tribunes were plebeians.The plebeians had the power of the veto in ancient Rome. Their tribunes were plebeians.The plebeians had the power of the veto in ancient Rome. Their tribunes were plebeians.The plebeians had the power of the veto in ancient Rome. Their tribunes were plebeians.The plebeians had the power of the veto in ancient Rome. Their tribunes were plebeians.The plebeians had the power of the veto in ancient Rome. Their tribunes were plebeians.


What did the ancient greek and roman government and the English government contribute to American government?

The Greeks invented the idea of democracy. However, their concept of democracy was different. Nowadays we have indirect democracy, which means that the people elect representatives of the people and it is them who vote on bills. The Greek had direct democracy, which means that it was the people themselves, gathered in the assembly of the people, who voted on bills. Demorcacy means power by the people in Greek. Both the Greeks and the Romans had the concept of citizenship and the idea that citizens had rights. During the Roman Republic and in the Greek democracies, this included the right to vote. It has to be noted that not all Greek states had democracies and in that other states (such as kingdoms, oligarchies and tyrannies) there was no voting. During the period of rule by emperors which followed the Roman Republic the people no longer voted and there was absolute rule by emperors. During the Roman Republic there was also the power of veto. The idea for American veto system came from the Romans.


Why was the roman consuls awarded the power of the veto?

The Roman republic was created after ousting the Etruscan king, Tarquinius Superbus (Teraquin the proud). The Roman senate wanted to ensure no such dictator could reign in Rome again. The senate gave itself the power to veto outlandish laws, like "everyone must give Maximus all their money or else they will die". Its also just the democratic thing to do.


In times of crisis who did the Romans choose to lead the city?

During the period of the Roman Republic, there were two heads of state called consuls. They were elected for a one-year term and each had veto power over the other. However, during periods of crisis they could nominate a dictator who had absolute power for the duration of the crisis.

Related questions

How was the power of Romans consuls limited?

The power of the Roman consuls was limited by the veto of the tribunes, or in later times, by the emperor.


What was the last state to give governor the veto power?

North Carolina was the last state, the governor did not obtain veto power until 1996


Why were Romans consuls awarded the power of the veto?

The power of veto was not just restricted to the consuls. All officers of state (consuls, praetors, censors, aediles and quaestors) had the power of veto. Officers of the same rank could veto each other and officers of higher rank could veto officers of lower rank. The tribune of the plebeians, who was the representative of the plebeians (commoners), but not an officer of state, also had to power of veto. The power to veto the actions of officers of state was the Roman system of checks and balances of power. It was meant to reduce the chance that the officers would abuse their power. The power of veto of the tribune of the plebeians was also meant to prevent the abuse of the commoners by the state.


How much power does the Queen's power of veto give her?

Which Queen? There are a lot of Queens. In the UK no bill can become law without royal assent so I'd say her veto power is pretty serious. However, the Queen rarely uses that veto power.


What power did the constitution give congress over the presidents veto?

Congressional Override


Veto Power of The President of the Philippines?

The veto power of the President of the Philippines is similar to the power of the United States President. The President can veto a bill, but the veto can be overridden.


Why did the framers of the constitution give the president the power to veto a law passed by congress?

Cool


Does India has veto power?

india has no veto power till now.


Who Veto power?

The President of the United States has the power to veto laws


Would Line-Item Veto give the President too much power?

It would give him more power over the budget than he has. Without it, he has to accept the entire budget bill or else veto all of it. He was given this power during the administration of Bill Clinton, but the Supreme Court ruled that it was unconstitutional and disallowed it. It would take a constitutional amendment to give him this power.


The right or power of a president or governor to reject bill in the legislature?

the right or power of a president or governor to reject bills


Who has veto power in the state?

The Governor has veto power in all but seven states.