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Romans did and I beleive the Greeks did too but I'm not positive

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Q: Did the Greeks or the Romans give veto power?
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Why were Romans consuls awarded the power of the veto?

The power of veto was not just restricted to the consuls. All officers of state (consuls, praetors, censors, aediles and quaestors) had the power of veto. Officers of the same rank could veto each other and officers of higher rank could veto officers of lower rank. The tribune of the plebeians, who was the representative of the plebeians (commoners), but not an officer of state, also had to power of veto. The power to veto the actions of officers of state was the Roman system of checks and balances of power. It was meant to reduce the chance that the officers would abuse their power. The power of veto of the tribune of the plebeians was also meant to prevent the abuse of the commoners by the state.


Did plebeians get the right to veto?

The plebeians had the power of the veto in ancient Rome. Their tribunes were plebeians.The plebeians had the power of the veto in ancient Rome. Their tribunes were plebeians.The plebeians had the power of the veto in ancient Rome. Their tribunes were plebeians.The plebeians had the power of the veto in ancient Rome. Their tribunes were plebeians.The plebeians had the power of the veto in ancient Rome. Their tribunes were plebeians.The plebeians had the power of the veto in ancient Rome. Their tribunes were plebeians.The plebeians had the power of the veto in ancient Rome. Their tribunes were plebeians.The plebeians had the power of the veto in ancient Rome. Their tribunes were plebeians.The plebeians had the power of the veto in ancient Rome. Their tribunes were plebeians.


What did the ancient greek and roman government and the English government contribute to American government?

The Greeks invented the idea of democracy. However, their concept of democracy was different. Nowadays we have indirect democracy, which means that the people elect representatives of the people and it is them who vote on bills. The Greek had direct democracy, which means that it was the people themselves, gathered in the assembly of the people, who voted on bills. Demorcacy means power by the people in Greek. Both the Greeks and the Romans had the concept of citizenship and the idea that citizens had rights. During the Roman Republic and in the Greek democracies, this included the right to vote. It has to be noted that not all Greek states had democracies and in that other states (such as kingdoms, oligarchies and tyrannies) there was no voting. During the period of rule by emperors which followed the Roman Republic the people no longer voted and there was absolute rule by emperors. During the Roman Republic there was also the power of veto. The idea for American veto system came from the Romans.


Why was the roman consuls awarded the power of the veto?

The Roman republic was created after ousting the Etruscan king, Tarquinius Superbus (Teraquin the proud). The Roman senate wanted to ensure no such dictator could reign in Rome again. The senate gave itself the power to veto outlandish laws, like "everyone must give Maximus all their money or else they will die". Its also just the democratic thing to do.


What allowed government officials to restrict the power of other officials of rome?

Roman officers of state could restrict each other's power through the power to veto. Officer of state of the same ranks could veto each other's actions. Officers of state of higher rank could veto the actions of officers of state of lower rank. It was actions which could be vetoed. Only the plebeian tribunes, who were the representatives of the plebeians, but were not officers of state, could veto laws.