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both were born in there social status

2nd answer: Slavery did exist in the middle ages, particularly in the early middle ages, but it steadily decreased over time, primarily due to the influence of the church, which opposed enslaving Christians. It had largely disappeared, at least in Western Europe, by the 13th century.

Serfs were not fully free individuals, but they were not chattel slaves. Serfs owed labor to their lord, but they also worked their own lands and animals. If fortunate or shrewd a peasant family could acquire more land and move from subsistence to generating a surplus for cash sale. Some serfs were able to hire other to do their required labor for them. They might also have hired men to assist with their farm work, and in some cases even had household servants. A very few acquired enough land to have tenants of their own, essentially becoming minor gentry landlords.

Also, not all peasants were serfs, some were free men. The status of serf or free did not always correlate to wealth. A free man might be a poor cottager, and a serf, despite his unfree status, might have considerable wealth.

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12y ago

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More answers

A serf was a slave a freeman wasn't (hence the name "free" man)

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15y ago
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I honestly don't know that's why i came here

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Someone

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4y ago
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so

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CoolestTax36

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4y ago
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Q: How are the serfs and freemen similar?
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