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both were born in there social status

2nd answer: Slavery did exist in the middle ages, particularly in the early middle ages, but it steadily decreased over time, primarily due to the influence of the church, which opposed enslaving Christians. It had largely disappeared, at least in Western Europe, by the 13th century.

Serfs were not fully free individuals, but they were not chattel slaves. Serfs owed labor to their lord, but they also worked their own lands and animals. If fortunate or shrewd a peasant family could acquire more land and move from subsistence to generating a surplus for cash sale. Some serfs were able to hire other to do their required labor for them. They might also have hired men to assist with their farm work, and in some cases even had household servants. A very few acquired enough land to have tenants of their own, essentially becoming minor gentry landlords.

Also, not all peasants were serfs, some were free men. The status of serf or free did not always correlate to wealth. A free man might be a poor cottager, and a serf, despite his unfree status, might have considerable wealth.

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12y ago
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14y ago

A serf was a slave a freeman wasn't (hence the name "free" man)

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4y ago

I honestly don't know that's why i came here

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CoolestTax36

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4y ago

so

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Q: How are the serfs and freemen similar?
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Related questions

How were serfs different from freemen?

Serfs were slaves tied to the land and lord and nothing would free them. Freemen were peasants who had bought their freedom.


What types of peasants were there in the middle ages?

Serfs and Freemen


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True.


Who benefits the most from feudalism?

the lords, knights, kings, queens, serfs, and freemen got it the best


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The villains were considered freemen among the serfs, but a subject under the king Both villains and serfs exchanged manual labor on the manors grounds for produce and rent. These conditions continued into the 15th century when tenure and free labor gained prominence.


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