0
*abl- or *ablu-
Wiki User
∙ 14y ago
Add your answer:
Earn +20 pts
Which race do Indo-Aryan belong to?
"Race" is such a flexible term. Some people think of there being three races (African, Asian, European) other four or five, still others as many as they need, ("Jewish race," "Irish race," etc.) Aryans or "Indo-European" were a huge collection of peoples distinquished by speaking languages with a common parent, although that parent itself has long since mutated by the time anybody thought of the term. As it suggests, there are both European and Asian (Indian) components though not quite everybody in Europe is Indo-European, nor is everybody in India. There are even other Asian members now known only through the scripts they left, known as Tocharian Linear.
Who were the Indo Europeans?
About 1500 BC, India was invaded by Indo-European people. These people came from the area between the Black Sea and the Caspian sea. Between 2500 and 2000 BC, many Indo-Europeans migrated all over Eurasia. Some went to Europe and became the Romans and the Greeks, some settled in Turkey and became the Hittites. Others migrated south-east instead. Some of them stopped in Iran, while others continued south-east to Pakistan and India. The slow migration did not arrive in northern India until about 1500 BC. In India, the Indo-Europeans are usually called the Aryans. The Aryans first settled along the Indus River, in the same place where the Harappa people had lived. They settled down and mixed with the local Indian people. They lived there from about 1500 BC to about 800 BC. It seems to be at this time that the Caste System got started in India. About 800 BC, the Aryans learned how to use iron for weapons and tools. They probably learned to work iron from the people of West Asia, the Assyrians, who had learned it from the Indo-European Hittites. Once the Aryans learned how to use iron, they used their new weapons to conquer more of India, and moved to the south and east into the Ganges river valley. They settled there not long after 800 BC. = Ancient Languages and Literature = Two major language groups were spoken in the Mediterranean and Western Asian areas in the ancient and medieval periods. These are Indo-European and Semitic. In southern Africa, most people spoke either a Bantu language or a Khoisan language. Indo-European languages came to be spoken in India as well, but other languages also were spoken. In Central Asia, most people spoke variations of Turkic languages. And in China, people spoke different variants of Chinese.
What is the difference in American and European grapes?
They are two different species. The European species is Vitis vinifera while the American is Vitis Lambrusca. Today, most grape vines are planted grafted on to Vitis Lambrusca root stocks as it is immune to the parasite phylloxera.
Why did indo Europeans migrate?
No one knows exactly why Indo-Europeans migrated but many of them split up and moved to various regions over a period of time.
Are the Irish and Scottish Anglo-Saxon?
The Irish and Scottish are Celtic, not Anglo-Saxon. They are linguistically and culturally Celtic but are related to the Anglo-Saxons because they all derive from the same Indo European people. The Irish and Scottish have a heavy Genetic relation to Anglo-saxons due to the settlements in Ireland and Scotland
What is a Proto-Indo-European language group?
There is no Proto-Indo-European language group. Proto-Indo-European, or PIE, is the hypothetical root language from which Indo-European languages today (and others that are extinct) descend.
Does the Spanish word hermana have an Indo-European root?
Yes, the Spanish word "hermana" meaning "sister" does have an Indo-European root. It ultimately comes from the Proto-Indo-European root *swésōr, which also gave rise to similar words in other Indo-European languages.
Where did the word gel come from?
Comes from indo-European root 'ball, bulb' when *g(e)l. If its just plain *gel then it comes from indo European root meaning 'cold, to freeze'
Where did the word chocolate originate from?
It originated from a Indo-European root word
How does the root sol infuence the meaning of disconsolate?
The root "sol" in disconsolate comes from Latin "sōlus," meaning alone or lonely. This influences the meaning of disconsolate to suggest someone who is deeply distraught or inconsolable, emphasizing the feeling of being abandoned or lacking comfort.
Where does the rootword 'un' come from?
The negating prefix un- comes from from the Indo-European root *ne, meaning "no" or "not."
Where does the word lips come from?
"Lip" comes from the Indo-European root leb-, meaning to hang loosely.
What is the latin root of cumulo?
The Latin root of "cumulo" is "cumulus," which means a heap or pile.
Does generous have a base word?
"Generous" comes from the Indo-European root *gene-, meaning to give birth, to produce.
What is the origin of ashamed?
It ultimately comes from the Proto-Indo-European word root *ḱormo- meaning "suffering, pain".
What is the language from which Indo-European came?
Proto-Indo-European. (There is also a new theoretical language called Pre-proto-Indo-European).
Is urdu an indo European language?
Yes it is. Urdu belongs to the Indo-Aryan branch of Indo-European languages.
