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Not everyone will understand this question, so first, some background.

Women (all females) were not always considered "persons", in a legal sense or otherwise. Canada and the US were influenced first from British laws and attitudes. All females were "owned" by their fathers; they were "property" without any rights. When women married, this "ownership" passed from the father to the husband. If the woman's husband died, ownership passed back to the father. If both father and husband were deceased, the father's brothers were next in line to claim ownership.

Women could not buy or own property; vote; bring a legal complaint; etc. The man whose possession she was had to do all that for her. If he did not want to, or wouldn't, women were stuck. Even if she was severely beaten, she could not bring a court action by herself. She could not even file for divorce from the man who beat her!

Women's Right to Vote began to change the idea of females being "property". But in marriage, the husband still could treat his wife as property; this aspect continued into the 1960s. But women had earned the right of personhood decades before. By the time of Women's Lib and bra burning, women wanted all rights of personhood, which meant fighting against the attitudes which made them possessions originally. Women are still fighting to break through "glass ceilings" and "equal pay".

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7y ago
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12y ago

Depends on which country, state (or province), and city. In some, women still aren't considered people. In America, it was around 1920, and Canada was around the same time. I'm not sure when it happened over the seas in places like Britain and Italy, but I hope this helps.

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15y ago

In 1929

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Q: What year did women become persons under the law?
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